In the knowledge of Saints.
Chapter 3



Virgin Conception/Birth?

The greatest alteration of the Gospels!
Here is the answer to all those who cannot work out the truth of Jesus the Christ, is he God, or is he part of God as being part of a Triune, or is he a god? Have a look at this; the Old Testament says very clearly that Jesus is not God, or in Essence of God, or a god, or part of any Trinity God head.
The Old Testament cannot be altered by the Romans, because the Jews protect it! Thank God for that; the Romans could alter the Gospels, given freedom to do so by the fact that, the Mosaic Jews were not interested in holding or abiding by it, Rome and Constantine, and his church the Roman Catholic, could realise their dreams, with no one to stop them, because no one had the power to do so! You may ask, why didn’t God stop them? And the answer is, especially since the Crucifixion of Jesus the Christ, God is hands off destroying evil man immediately, he watches man do his thing, whatever that maybe, and judges accordingly, this now demonstrates the death of Jesus, his blood covering the sins of mankind, giving all the chance to change, and repent of any sins and to be forgiven, that’s what Christ is all about; God just watches man be his own demise, or alternatively become worthy to enter into God’s Kingdom; but beware all those who know these things, God knows our thoughts, even before we may come to him, oh yes, and for those who think to sin hard because they think there is a loophole, then when finished, think of coming to God and get forgiveness, think again! Constantine tried that one on, as many do today also, it won’t work!
Now back to where we were.
What the Romans have done, they have inserted writings into the Gospels, to re-enforce their doctrine that Jesus is God, and have done that by introducing the Virgin conception/birth! Reason with why they have done this, if Jesus was believed to be of a Virgin conception, and or Virgin birth, then it is more readily argued that he is God, or a god, therefore, by that belief the blood of the Messiah cannot be on their hands, and that’s why they have done it.
Given all this, we, by the forethought of God, have the true account in the Old Testament, just look at the truth of it; Jesus was to be born to a virgin woman, that’s what the Old Scripture states, and nowhere in there are the words “Virgin conception”.


Virgin Conception/Birth?: read from the book of Isaiah Ch 7:14-16 and from the Septuagint

Edit... You need to remember, the presenters of the Septuagint Greek to English version, reveal that, at the Metropolis of Constantinople, Constantine's church altered the old Testament to the satisfaction of the governance of the religious leaders, It has since under gone some correction, but we are warned that it may not now be authentic. the same happened to the New Testament, which has not under gone correction.

However according to the Septuagint written in Hebrew the word "Virgin" in the Hebrew Language is not the word used, the word used is far from the meaning of virgin, they translate the verse to be saying " The woman shall be in child" or " The woman shall bear a child" or "A child shall be born to the woman", but these Hebrew people are definite in their understanding of the language, that the word used is not "Virgin"... In true mankind style, other Yiddish people claim that the word means, "The young woman will conceive" but implies that she will be a virgin, and they also accept that the Messiah will be born illegitimate, as a sign. However in the absence of agreement, one has to read the scriptures in context in this matter, and realize to accept a virgin conception/birth is to deny the existence of the scriptures of Moses, Isaiah, King David, and the testimony of God and Jesus, the explanation I have given below is to ease the truth in where it belongs.

One could say, where then is the sign spoken of if the verse be without a virgin conception? I would answer by saying, where then is the sign in Jesus giving the sign of Jonas, three days and three nights in the belly of a whale? and I would say, why has Trinity Christianity not recognised the meaning of this? And what is the significance of the sign? even so I know it's meaning, yet it is not pointed as a sign, you have to search the scriptures/Gospels to understand it.... and the same goes for Isaiah 7:14.

End of Edit.

“Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; behold a virgin shall conceive in the womb, and shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Emmanuel.” V15 “ Butter and Honey shall he eat, before he knows either to prefer evil or choose the good” v16 “For before the child shall know good or evil, he refuses evil, he refuses evil to choose the good”. Well here we see for a start that this one to be born is not God or even a god, with God it wouldn’t be necessary to have to choose Evil or Good, and there would be no question.
If we look at how the old language has worded “Virgin shall conceive in the womb”, Clearly The woman is to start off a virgin as per Jewish Law, and is a usual and normal statement, used in the normal event of a Kosher occurrence; now the word “Conceive” the wording is such as to make clear the meaning by saying “In the womb”, and therefore making clear the meaning of the word “Conceive”, If the wording was left at, (Behold a virgin shall conceive), it doesn’t clarify the use of the word conceive, according to the dictionary anyone can conceive, look at a well used meaning of the word : Thought, notion, in the mind, imagine, formulate, these are all meanings of the word conceive as well. How could v 14 be read if not written as it is, (Behold a virgin shall have thoughts)? No it doesn’t fit does it? So that’s the only reason why v14 is written as it is, “Virgin shall conceive in the womb” and not alluding to there being a virgin conception, which I’m proving by scripture; that very scripture should say, ‘The woman will have a virgin conception, and a virgin birth to follow that’ if it were to mean such, because, such is the wondrous miracle of the two events that would take place in that case, given that both the conception and the birth, if they were to be of a Virgin nature, are very much worthy of emphasis of scripture, and to the point of being repeated by wording it in multiple ways, and as to be leaving no doubt; then if Joseph and Mary were out of wedlock, then this important message would have been emphasised similar to, ‘Joseph and Mary are to break the Mosaic Laws of God, in the eyes of the Jewish people, their partnership and Mary’s conception of a child while not in a binding Jewish lawful marriage has to be seen that way’, this of course raises the question, why would God want it seen that way? And especially when it is not God’s way! No, it’s not God’s way, but what it is though is mans way, man altering the Gospels to suit his own devious ways; further to this is, we need to understand that the Eastern way of writing and thinking, is not the same as the Western ways, and therefore much can be lost in translation, and interpretation.
Jewish Law states that the woman has to be, as Jewish moral law also dictated “A virgin”, that they may enter into a Kosher marriage; reason with this, the great risk God would be taking, if he allowed the woman to be in child before marriage, Jesus was born into and bought up under the Mosaic Law, and that’s what is behind the scripture which states that Jesus was to be borne by a woman who entered into marriage as a virgin.
Now we need to go to the New Testament Gospels, to Matthew Ch 1:18 I’m going to quote to you from the original Greek manuscript word for word translations. “Of the now Jesus Christ the birth thus was. Being espoused for the mother of him Mary to the Joseph.” Now then this word “espoused” the dictionary meaning of the word, espouse is: Marry, Give (woman to man) in Marriage; adopt, support, Marriage. Betrothal, so they are espoused which means the act is already carried out, they at the time of Jesus’ conception already married! The word betrothal is the one word which doesn’t fit in context of the Scriptures of, Moses, Isaiah, and the Psalms.


Now to continue Matt Ch 1:18 using the Greek manuscript, and the following words written throw the rest of the words into confusion, and I believe they have been added in, these are the words which follow on from where I stopped just above here, “Before either came together them” then it carries on with “she was found in womb having found by a spirit Holy.” The next verse starts,
“Joseph and the husband of her.” And goes on about his indecision, as to divorcing Mary.
Now to start with we know from scripture that God was going to be the persuader of Mary and Joseph to be the ones blessed with the child, and therein lays the answer to “She was found in womb having found by a spirit Holy”, it’s not saying that a spirit physically put the Baby in the womb, it is saying that the Holy Spirit of God, and by his spiritual persuasion bought Joseph the son of David, and Mary the virgin to be united and allowed the natural course of things to occur between Joseph and Mary; It cannot be any other way, God’s word in the Old Scriptures say so!
Now look at all the confusion setup by man altering the Gospels in this matter, one part says they weren’t married, the other says they were husband and wife; one doesn’t need a divorce if not married! The Old Scriptures say it’s all to be done naturally, and down from the seed issue from the loins of King David, through to the seed issue from the loins of Joseph, and Joseph being David’s lineage, his Great Grandson so many times removed; what is the purpose of the scripture about the seed issue from their loins, If they had nothing to do with the Conception? And what was the point of the Promise from God to David? To bring in a Virgin conception and Birth at the time of Joseph and Mary, would throw any credibility of there being a Christ at all out of the window, so to speak, and think on this, a Virgin conception, and a virgin birth as presented in the Gospels is straight up saying that, this birth was all done by God, and therefore David and Joseph have had no part in it at all! Reason with this now, the Old scriptures tell the truth, what are the loins referred to by the Old Scripture? And what is the seed issue? This describes the natural coupling of a man and a woman to reproduce, and using their reproductive organs, and the Gospel as we read it is in direct contradiction to the Old Scriptures on the matter! What’s more, Jesus made it clear, to believe into him we must believe those Old Scripture written about him, and they are as he said Moses, the Prophets, and Psalms.
When we read the Old Scripture in context, there can be no virgin conception, and therefore no virgin birth, other than the woman was a virgin before conception! I cannot for the life of me, accept that God would be the author of such scriptural confusion, as God says “There is no confusion in my congregation” How can a woman be a virgin after giving birth to a child? Jesus was born, and the Old Testament tells us, he was to be born, as it also tells us that Jesus didn’t come down from Heaven, so he couldn’t be of a virgin conception or birth!
Now therefore the rest of what has been written in Mat Ch 1: 18 to 25 is mainly spurious, it is there at the doing of Constantine, to help try and wash their hands of the blood of Christ Jesus!
Oh yes there’s more, much more! Let me now take you through the old scripture which Jesus told us is the Key to the accurate knowledge of him, and by this prove what I have written about this matter, in that the Gospels have been adulterated to suit what has turned out to be a very vicious regime, whose sins have stacked up to the Heaven.
Please go to Chapter 4 by clicking here.